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Old 31-Aug-2006, 20:32
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Default Re: How come we can say "Since I've know Jane...

Quote:
Originally Posted by Coffa View Post
I think the point is not the error in the past participle of 'know', but the usage of present perfect and imperfect tenses.
In the first example, 'Since I have known Jane', we use the present perfect tense because I knew Jane in the past, and I still know her now when I am reporting. But in the second example, I 'came' once in the past - I am not still 'coming' - so the correct sentence is "Jack has been here since I came."
Coffa, you're right... It was just a typo. Coming back to the main problem - I thought that if I'm saying "Jack has been here since I HAVE COME" then I imply that I'm still there! ... hmm... am I mistaken?

and tell me please - do we say

a) I thought that if I'm saying "bla bla bla..."
b) I thought that if I say "bla bla bla..."

and what's the difference and why?
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