[shun]

Originally Posted by MrPedantic

1. I've gone to work by train since I got the job.
2. I go to work by train.
#1 makes a statement about your commuting habits from the moment when you got the job until now.
#2 makes a statement about your commuting habits in the past and the present. It also implies that the speaker expects those habits to continue into the future.

My reply: I agree. But both of our examples are fit with your earlier conditions:
"1. He has gone to work by train in the past, he goes to work by train at present, and he expects to go to work by train in the future."

You would not deny it, will you? Or do you mean that in #1 here, the speaker doesn't expect those habits to continue into the future?

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Originally Posted by MrPedantic

3. I have gone to work by train.
4. ?I go to work by train since I got the job.
#3 does not express a habit. It might conceivably occur in a context where you wanted to describe your recent journey to work.

I didn't say #3, did I? How can you change my example with Since into the one without Since? What kind of argument is that?

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Originally Posted by MrPedantic

As Philly's post suggests, the two sentences are not equivalent.

My reply: How will anyone expect the following two examples are equivalent?
Ex: I've gone to work by train since I got the job. (an unfinished action)
Ex: I've gone to work by train. (a finished action)

They are totally different, so one should not change my example with Since into the one without it.