[MikeNewYork]

Originally Posted by riverkid

MikeNewYork: When you consult a major dictionary, you will find that these texts find modals to have tense. For example:



You have failed to address the issues I raised, Mike. Are you stuck?

Dictionaries say modals have tense but they can provide no examples. On the other hand, any old person can give examples of every modal operating in all time situations. What else can do that but tenseless verbs.

I asked Mike to provide some examples and he couldn't either. Anyone, go ahead, make a sentence using <might> as the past tense of <may>; <should> for <shall>; <would> for <will>; <could> for <can>.

If what the dictionaries say had any veracity, examples would abound.


aux.v., Past tense of can1.

1. Used to indicate ability or permission in the past: I could run faster then. Only men could go to the club in those days.
   
   These don't exhibit a past tense for 'can' in the least. They don't even exhibit the very thing past tense does, discuss/describe a one time event. <could> Used to indicate ability or permission in the past describes a general condition, NOT a past tense condition.
2. Used with hypothetical or conditional force: If we could help, we would.
3. Used to indicate tentativeness or politeness: I could be wrong. Could you come over here?

That should be sufficient for now.

That still leaves this student and all the others unable to use <could> as the past tense of <can>. That's hardly sufficient.

I have given my opinion and you have given yours. That is all that is appropriate for learner's threads. If you continue to drag all of your old arguments to these threads, your messages will be deleted. Is that clear?