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Originally Posted by RonBee "I have lived" is complete in itself. Example: - I have lived. I have died. I have laughed. I have cried.
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Well now, you see, that's Shun's argument right there. If "I have lived" is complete (with)in itself, then what differentiates the Present Perfect from, say, the Simple tenses "I live" and "I lived"?
Thing is, it's not that the action has finished per se; rather, it's that the Present completes the Past, or the Past is completed by the Present:
"I have lived...(up until now)".
Implied "up until now", often omitted, ends the cycle. In other words, the
Present perfect expresses a cylce that starts in the Past and ends now in the Present. The Present completes the Past.
:D
What do you think? That is, can you think of any examples that contradict this?
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