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Old 31-Jan-2007, 11:22
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Default Re: none of us + has/have

I've seen both forms:
1) None of my children has blonde hair.
2) None of my children have blonde hair.

Both of them are correct.

But I think in American English, they often use it as a singular pronoun (none of them has, none of the was,...). I hope a native American confirm my statements.
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