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Old 06-Jan-2004, 06:47
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Quote:
Originally Posted by red pencil
Quote:
Originally Posted by RonBee
Quote:
Originally Posted by tdol
I think the basic is question is that if it is possible to put a preposition there it called be viewed as an elliptical preposition.
That seems to make sense. Certainly, a preposition can be unstated yet understood.

:)
The basic question Is it grammatically legitimate to view a nominative absolute as an object of an understood preposition modified by a participial phrase? remains unanswered.

I am interested in phrase constituent elements and am wondering if the noun portion of a nominative absolute phrase is really a "subject" as suggested by some scholars, or is it simply an object of an understood preposition?
I am inclined to say yes, it is an object of an understood preposition modified by a participial phrase. However, I await Cas's (or Tdol's) opinion for the final word on this one.
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