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Old 27-Feb-2007, 19:35
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Default Re: be verb versus modal verb

Quote:
Originally Posted by Dany View Post
I've never heard "be to" as an equivalent of "must". Is it commenly used? Is "be to" always replaceable with "have to"?

In your first example you said: The train is to arrive soon.
Does it have the same meaing as: The train arrives soon. Or: The train has to arrive soon.


@ aksaboutenglish
You said: I am to be in Glasgow at 4pm.
Is it the same as: I have to be in Glasgow at 4pm.

Thanks a lot.
"Be to" is used in the meaning of "must" in sentences where there is timetable or schedule. It's not the same as "have to' though "have to" is the first equivqalent of "must'
"The train is to arrive soon" & "The train arrives soon " are similar in meaning. The train has to arrive soon has nothing to with timetable.
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