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Old 29-Oct-2007, 20:48
Waawe Waawe is offline
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Default Re: Is "have to" considered a state verb?

Quote:
Originally Posted by riverkid View Post
Hi Waawe.

Even state verbs are sometimes used in the continuous, eg. "I'mmm loving it".

"have to" is a semi-modal/periphrastic modal with a meaning, as you almost certainnly know, similar to the modal verb 'must'.

While true modals do not use 'ing' forms, periphrastic modals sometimes do. Your example could be used by someone to show a more immediate situation, a more onerous situation, to denote that they really aren't happy about "having to study".

An exact phrase google search gave the following results.

Results 1 - 10 of about 382,000 English pages for "I'm having to".

Why not try an exact phrase search yourself, then you can look at some of the examples to see how it's used?
Hey, thanks for help and your time, RiverKid. As Im a student of English, I need to know what is grammatical and will be OK'd in tests, therefore I dont usually refer to the internet in the matter of grammar (except for this site) as it is definitely not an oasis of correct English. When I read what our Czech journalists, for example, can pass off as correct Czech, I dont dare to refer to google for English. It sure is the same, Im afraid.

Take it easy.

Yours,

Waawe
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