Quote:
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Originally Posted by RonBee Quote: |
Originally Posted by CuriousT If you say something like the following:
(1) Her critics have yet to describe her as the anti-Christ
it means "her critics haven't described her as the anti-Christ yet", doesn't it? | Yes. They haven't done so. It's possible that they will, but, of course, they might not. Quote: |
Originally Posted by CuriousT If you have "no one" instead as the subject as in the following:
(2) No one has yet to describe her as the anti-Christ
doesn't it mean "there is no one who hasn't described her as the anti-Christ yet," i.e., "everyone has described her as the anti-Christ"? | Not quite. You've got it the wrong way around. Nobody ("No one") has described her that way, and they might never do so. |
Hmmm. This is more complicated than I thought....
Let's see if I understood you correctly.
So for you, does (1) mean (3), to be more exact?
(3) Her critics
may describe her as the anti-Christ in the future (implication: they haven't done so).
Then, (2) means (4)?
(4) No one
may describe her as the anti-Christ in the future (implication: no one has done so.)
If this is a correct understanding of your points, (4) does not seem to fit in the original context, though, does it? I may be confused....
CuriousT