Thanks for your kind help,Dr. Jamshid Ibrahim and iconoclast.
I am afraid to say that you two seem to forget my question.It is whether
have to is a modal verb or not.
Quote:
'Need' is normally used interrogatively or negatively, but not affirmatively (except in a clause subordinated to some kind of negative, e.g. 'I don't see why he need bother', 'I doubt that he need apply'').
I often see affirmative sentences using need such as :
I need to know.
You need to tell me exactly what he did.
In these cases need is treated as a lexical verb ,not an auxiliary ,right ?
Also, 'need' rarely (if ever?) takes a continuous infinitive, while 'dare' only takes the base/simple infinitive. Should we call them "partial" modals?
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Yeah,they are called "marginal" modal in my book.
One more thing I would like you to help me is that why
had better and
ought to are called semi-auxiliary.
Thanks a lot .