Quote:
|
Originally Posted by Casiopea Quote: |
Originally Posted by X Mode 1. Did you eat yet. - emphasis on a completed action
2. Have you eaten yet - emphasis on "at any time up until now" starting from a time when one would be expected to eat
They're really the same. | Thanks. :D
I agree with your definitions, but I'm a bit confused by 'really the same'.  Given that Have...eaten is aspectual and Did...eat tense, how are 1. and 2. 'really the same'? That is, if the speaker knows (i.e., intuitively/innately) that a difference exists between the two (e.g., use "Have you eaten? when you don't know when one is expected to eat and use "Did you eat?" when you do know when one is expected to eat), how are they 'really the same'?
Just my thoughts.
All the best, :D |
One is aspectual yes. However, by asking this question and answering this question we find out whether or not someone ate or did not eat.
I have eaten, yes. I ate, yes. In this context both are completed actions. The "up until now" meaning of the present perfect is rather insignificant in this particular context - in this particular case.
To me, that it is aspectual, I believe is, irrelavant. The same information is communicated. The practical meaning is the same -
in this case.
Personally, I try not to analyze too much when it comes to grammar. I simply prefer to understand and be able to explain it.
To me, it's pretty simple. On occasion AE might use the simple present where BE would always use the present perfect. It can happen here and there, though not as often as some would like to believe it does - as I see it.
:D 8) :D 8)
