1) I am well. (well =
adverbial of manner)
=> "well" functions as a predicate in that context. It doesn't mean, in a satisfactory way; i.e., She did
well on the exam. It describes a state. It means, in good health.
2) I am fine. (fine = adjective = subj compl)
=> "fine" describes a state.
3) The meeting is at 2pm. (at 2pm = adverbial of time even though we can consider "2pm" an Op)
=> "at 2 p.m." is an prepositional phrase in form; The preposition "at" heads the phrase and "2 p.m." functions as its object; it's an Op, yes. But the entire phrase functions as an adverb.
4) The meeting is tomorrow. (tomorrow = adverbial of time)
Quote:
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Originally Posted by Hela So should we say that all intensive verbs can never (?) be followed by an adverbial without a subject complement except the verb "to be" which can take any of them? |
I don't understand the statment.
First, are
all "intensive" verbs BE? Examples 1) through 4) provide "am" and "is", only. Second, given the structure SUBJECT + BE + X, "X" is either a subject complement of an adverbial of time or location.
Quote:
How do you analyze this:
[1] I bought this car cheap.
[2] I bought this car cheaply.
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Here are my guesses for [1]:
[a] I bought this car
(for a) cheap (price).
adverb, not manner; cause (?)
[b] I bought this car; it is
cheap.
adjective, modifying "car"
Note that, [a]
cheap is also a variation of
cheaply.