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Originally Posted by Casiopea Justice Calls: Quote:
I think we have digressed somewhat from the original "story" that I heard from my checking up.
Which is, going back to the "rule": Within the same clause, the Simple Past is used with expressions of a specific time in the past, whereas the Present Perfect is used only with expressions of non-specific time in the past.
Is there any sort of concensus among us on this "rule"?  | Yup. Yes. I agree. Perfect definition. Perfect. :D We've come full circle. |
If I may add to my last post (to TDOL):
1."I have seen Simon yesterday" (not OK) vs "I have seen Simon before" (OK). Although "yesterday" and "before" both are adverbs of Time modifying "have seen", the meanings are very different.
2. "Yesterday" means yesterday, a TIME. "Before" means either "in the past" or "previously". In the sentence above, it clearly means "previously", not "in the past". Therefore, "I have seen Simon before/previously" is OK.
