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Old 30-Jan-2005, 09:13
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Default to-infinitive or gerund?

I've learned that to-infinitive should come after the word 'want'.
But I found the following sentence.

Don't drink too much. I don't want you drinking any more.

Is it acceptable?
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Old 30-Jan-2005, 10:23
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Default Re: to-infinitive or gerund?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sstupid
Don't drink too much. I don't want you drinking any more.

Is it acceptable?
Yes. It's acceptable.
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Old 30-Jan-2005, 10:41
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Default Re: to-infinitive or gerund?

Thank you very much, Casiopea.

How about 'I don't want drinking any more'?

Also acceptable?
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Old 30-Jan-2005, 19:13
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Arrow Re: to-infinitive or gerund?

I think the two forms occur after verb want with some difference in meaning as follows:
1. I don't want you drinking any more.
2. I don't want you to drink any more.
Difference
1. By using (V+ing) the speaker is making a general statement not talking about a specific situation.
2. By using (to-infinitive) the speaker is talking about a specific situation not in general.
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Old 31-Jan-2005, 01:20
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Default Re: to-infinitive or gerund?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sstupid
Thank you very much, Casiopea.

How about 'I don't want drinking any more'?

Also acceptable?
You could say 'I don't want any more drinking'.
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Old 31-Jan-2005, 05:56
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Default Re: to-infinitive or gerund?

Thank you very much, Abdo and tdol.
You helped me a lot.
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Old 31-Jan-2005, 07:27
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Default Re: to-infinitive or gerund?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sstupid
Thank you very much, Casiopea.

How about 'I don't want drinking any more'?

Also acceptable?
In that case, "drinking" functions as the verb's direct object, not as an object complement, so "to drink" is required. For example:

1) I don't want you drinking. ('drinking' refers back to the direct object 'you')
2) I don't want to drink. ('to drink' is the direct object of the verb)
3) I don't want you to drink. ('to drink' refers back to the direct object 'you')

"you drinking" and "you to drink" are pretty much the same in that context. Both are verbal nouns. "drinking" is a gerund, whereas "to drink" is an infinitive. Words ending in -ing tend to express an event as actualized, or having already happened before, whereas infinitives tend to express an event as unactualized, having not yet happened. For example,

1) I don't want you drinking the same thing you drank last week. (Past ref.)
3) I don't want you to drink when you go to the bar tonight. (Future ref.)
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Old 31-Jan-2005, 10:55
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Default Re: to-infinitive or gerund?

Thank you very much, Casiopea.
I really appriciate your help.
I read some of your answers to the same kind of other questions.
Now I have understood that gerunds express actualized events, while inifinitives express non-actualized events, but not always, do they?

I have believed for a long time that it is only true when you say remember + ing and remember to-infinitive. Thank you for clearing up my misunderstanding.
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Old 01-Feb-2005, 09:04
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Default Re: to-infinitive or gerund?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sstupid
Thank you for clearing up my misunderstanding.
You're welcome.
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