none of the ladies
I have been having this concern since I started teaching English. I often use singular verb for the pronoun "none" but lately my collegues told me that it is not always singular--the veb should agree to the object of the prepostion. I checked my books and the internet and found out that there are conflicting rules in agreement of "none" to the verb. Could you please give me a clearer explanation on the agreement of "none" to the verb.
I would appreciate any assistance that you could give.
Re: none of the ladies
Traditionally, it was followed by a singular, though nowadays I'd say the plural is probably more common. After 'none of' we generally use a plural:
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