Capitilised or not?

Hello,

Can anyone tell me which of the following is correct?


We're not living in the Dark Ages anymore.

Or:

We're not living in the dark ages anymore.


Any help will be much appreciated.
Many Thanks.

[Marylin]

Originally Posted by Tibbs

Hello,

Can anyone tell me which of the following is correct?


We're not living in the Dark Ages anymore.

Or:

We're not living in the dark ages anymore.


Any help will be much appreciated.
Many Thanks.

copy and paste:

While we're here, we should mention the capitalized term Middle Ages. The Middle Ages can be loosely defined as the time in European history between classical antiquity and the Renaissance, or roughly from the late fifth century to the fifteenth century, but again, this is a fluid range. Sometimes the Middle Ages are held to begin around A.D. 1000, with the earlier period being the Dark Ages, and the end of the Middle Ages can be variously reckoned as 1350, 1400, 1450, or 1500. It's also worth noting the curiosity that English is one of the few languages to interpret "Middle Ages" as a plural; the equivalents in most other languages, as Medieval Latin medium aevum, French moyen âge, German mittelalter, and Italian il Medioevo are all singular.

Sounds like it's OK to capitalize it.

took it from:



http://www.randomhouse.com/wotd/inde...?date=19970313

Hi Marylin,

Many thanks for your post, the link was helpful.
Tiibbs.

[Marylin]

Originally Posted by Tibbs

Hi Marylin,

Many thanks for your post, the link was helpful.
Tiibbs.

you're very welcom e!