Could you give me an explanation of this case?

Here is a quotation from M. Swan "Practical English Usage":
'If we say that something in the future is happening or is going to happen, it is usually already planned or decided, or it is starting to happen or we can see it coming now." p. 210

"...it coming now" Why "is" isn`t used in this sentence?
Thanks in advance,
Max.

we can see it coming now.
we can see it is coming now.

Is there any difference?:roll:

anyone?

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Originally Posted by marciobarbalho

we can see it coming now.
we can see it is coming now.

Is there any difference?:roll:

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To my mind, without "is" this sentence is incorrect.

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Originally Posted by usignolo

To my mind, without "is" this sentence is incorrect.

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Why?

I see no difference between them.

Quote:

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Originally Posted by marciobarbalho

we can see it coming now.
we can see it is coming now.

Is there any difference?:roll:

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There is no difference.

Quote:

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Originally Posted by usignolo

To my mind, without "is" this sentence is incorrect.

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No, it is perfectly correct.

Here are three common constructions with "see":

see (that) sth is coming
see sth coming
see sth come

The first, I would say, means to have visual evidence of the truth of the statement. The second and third involve direct perception of the situation of something coming. In the second that situation unfolds gradually, while in the third it is perceived as a whole.

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Originally Posted by orangutan

No, it is perfectly correct.

Here are three common constructions with "see":

see (that) sth is coming
see sth coming
see sth come

The first, I would say, means to have visual evidence of the truth of the statement. The second and third involve direct perception of the situation of something coming. In the second that situation unfolds gradually, while in the third it is perceived as a whole.

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Thanks a lot!