The court deemed the rules to be incompatible with Article 49 EC.
The court declared the rules to be incompatible with Article 49 EC.
I'm wondering whether "to be" is necessary. The sentences sound better to me with "to be," but I'd like to know whether they would be correct without it.
Last edited by Allen165; 24-Sep-2009 at 22:31.
Hello, I'm a student just like you,
but I don't believe we need 'to be' in this sentence.
For me you have one verb 'declared' and it's enough to have a correct clause.( one subject plus one verb plus one predicate it's enough).
I wait the answer of the teacher about it.
I'll wait for the answer (j'attends la réponse)
Originally Posted by The French
I think both sentences are understandable without the "to be." Probably no one would even notice if those words were not there.
But certainly they are smoother with "to be" included, and somewhat easier to read and understand.
I almost never think it's a good idea to be cheap with ink or electrons for words of orientation and syntax. Many sentences are vastly improved by deleting words, but not words of this nature.
Search Engine Optimization by vBSEO