gerund or participial

[mya.thway]

In a text for matriculation level, I found this pattern:
"After + verb present participial" and "After + subject + had + verb past participial", at the top of an exercise.
As far as I know, the preposition "after" is followed by a gerund. So I can't understand why the word form that follows a preposition should be a verb present participial. Please help me.

[Kondorosi]

Function and form.

Form: Most verbs have five forms: 1. base form, 2. present third person, 3. past tense form, 4. present participle form, 5. past participle form,

• take (bare infinitive; base form)
1. take
2. takes
3. took
4. taking
5. taken

Function: We have three verbals in the English language: 1. infinitive, 2. participle, 3. gerund.

• A gerund is a verbal that ends in -ing and functions as a noun.
• A participle is a verbal that is used as an adjective and most often ends in -ing or -ed.
• An infinitive is a verbal consisting of the word to plus a verb (in its simplest "stem" form) and functioning as a noun, adjective, or adverb.

OK now?

[mya.thway]

No ,I ain't ok. Please explain me more clearly.

[orangutan]

In a text for matriculation level, I found this pattern:
"After + verb present participial" and "After + subject + had + verb past participial", at the top of an exercise.
As far as I know, the preposition "after" is followed by a gerund. So I can't understand why the word form that follows a preposition should be a verb present participial. Please help me.

I would need to know a bit more context, but it looks to me like a mistake in the text (for exactly the reason you give).

[Raymott]

In a text for matriculation level, I found this pattern:
"After + verb present participial" and "After + subject + had + verb past participial", at the top of an exercise.
As far as I know, the preposition "after" is followed by a gerund. So I can't understand why the word form that follows a preposition should be a verb present participial. Please help me.

After reading your post, I couldn't see the problem.
After having read your post, I still couldn't see the problem.
After I had read your post for the third time, I still could not see what the problem was (apart from discussing grammar in the abstract without examples - which is always less than ideal).

[philo2009]

In a text for matriculation level, I found this pattern:
"After + verb present participial" and "After + subject + had + verb past participial", at the top of an exercise.
As far as I know, the preposition "after" is followed by a gerund. So I can't understand why the word form that follows a preposition should be a verb present participial. Please help me.

'After' can be both a preposition and a conjunction. Where it is followed directly by an -ing form, e.g.

After finishing the book he went to bed.

then it is functioning as a preposition (the -ing form itself here being reckoned a gerund), whereas when it is followed by a full clause, e.g.

After they had left, I returned to work.

it is functioning as a conjunction.

The former is the natural choice where the implicit subject of the gerund is that same as that of the main clause, while the latter is necessary where these differ.