I have myself normally taught ...

[sitifan]

I have myself normally taught from this book in more intensive courses, such as a two-quarter sequence covering the same material as a full-year (three-quarter) course, or in a one-semester version.

What does "I have myself normally taught" mean?

[tedtmc]

I have myself normally taught from this book in more intensive courses, such as a two-quarter sequence covering the same material as a full-year (three-quarter) course, or in a one-semester version.

What does "I have myself normally taught" mean?

I can't make any sense out of the sentence after reading it a few times.

not a teacher

[TheParser]

I have myself normally taught from this book in more intensive courses, such as a two-quarter sequence covering the same material as a full-year (three-quarter) course, or in a one-semester version.

What does "I have myself normally taught" mean?

********** NOT A TEACHER **********

Hello, Teacher Sitifan:

(1) I would interpret this sentence as:

It has been my normal (usual) practice to teach from this book/ to use

this book in more intensive classes, such as... .

Thank you.

[~Mav~]

*** NOT A TEACHER ***

I have myself normally taught from this book in more intensive courses, such as a two-quarter sequence covering the same material as a full-year (three-quarter) course, or in a one-semester version.

What does "I have myself normally taught" mean?

It means that s/he (probably a teacher) has her/his own experience with that book, thus s/he recommends it by emphasising this fact. (S/he herself has usually/generally* taught from that book.)




* Though now that I've taken another look at the sentence, I can imagine a situation like this:

A: Which book would you recommend?
B: Well, I myself have normally taught from this book, but (considering other circumstances) I would recommend that you teach from another book.

[tedtmc]

I myself have normally taught from this book
I have myself normally taught from this book

May
The first sentence (as corrected by you) is correct.
The second sentence means something else.

[Barb_D]

It means the same thing, either way.

The "myself" adds emphasis to the point that it's your own experience.

[tedtmc]

It means the same thing, either way.

The "myself" adds emphasis to the point that it's your own experience.

Barb
OK, I was a bit confused as I was thinking a long this line:
I had my children normally taught by a private tutor.(I arranged for my children to be taught by a private tutor.).

I had myself normally taught..? - I arranged for myself to be taught?

I had myself to blame. - I have no other people to blame except myself.

For emphasis, I thought it is usually in the form 'I myself' or 'he himself? No?

[Barb_D]

Let's say you own a book store. One of your associates recommends a book. You enter the conversation.


I couldn't have made a better recommendation than The Girl with the Dragon Tattoo myself.
I myself couldn't have made a better recommendation than...
I couldn't, myself, recommend a better book than...
I haven't myself made any better recommendations than...

All of those are fine. They are not equally natural or likely, but all mean about the same thing. They all mean "I strongly endorse this recommendation."