- 3 Post By philo2009
Can you please tell me about the difference between these two sentences?:
The whole of Europe is aware of this situation
The whole Europe is aware of this situation
Thank you very much
The first is correct; the second is ungrammatical.
They both need a full stop.
Thank you for your answer but can you tell me if there is a grammatical rule or if it is a question of use. Whatever may help me understand it.
But you may say:
"The whole city was burning" or "The whole London is expecting you".
On the other hand if you choose the expression "the whole of", it normally comes before articles, possissives, etc.
"The whole of this confusion" or "the whole of the time".
So, why not "The whole of the Europe is aware of this problem" or "The whole Europe is aware of this problem" ?
Thank you again.
The whole can prefix only a singular, countable common noun, thus e.g.
Originally Posted by ratóncolorao
The whole house needed repainting.
*The whole houses need repainting.
*The whole coffee was delicious.
*The whole London is in turmoil.
A proper noun, however, can be prefixed by the whole of, e.g.
The whole of London is in turmoil.
and plural nouns can be prefixed by whole alone, e.g.
Whole books have been written on this subject.
Note, however, that, 'whole books' means 'entire/complete books', and not 'all (the) books', whereas the whole house could - albeit rather unnaturally - be rephrased as all (of) the house, and the whole of London as all London.
Originally Posted by BobK
Search Engine Optimization by vBSEO