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Old 12-Aug-2005, 05:27
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Unhappy what does " general sense of mankind" mean???

No one ever had a greater respect for law and hence for lawyers than Edmund Burke: "God forbid I should insinuate anything derogatory to that profession, which is another priesthood, administrating the rights of sacred justice." Yet he felt compelled to describe the preponderance of lawyers in the national counsels as "mischievous." "Law . . . is, in my opinion, one of the first and noblest of human sciences: a science which does more to quicken and invigorate the understanding, than all the other kinds of learning put together: but it is not apt, except in persons very happily born, to open and to liberalize the mind exactly in the same proportion." For to speak "legally and constitutionally" is not the same as to speak prudently." ". . . Legislators ought to do what lawyers cannot; for they have no other rules to bind them, but the great principles of reason and equity, and the general sense of mankind."4 The liberalization of the mind obviously requires understanding of "the great principles of reason and equity" which for Burke are the same thing as the natural law.


How to understand " persons very happily born" and "the general sense of mankind" in the context above???
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Old 13-Aug-2005, 00:55
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Default Re: what does " general sense of mankind" mean???

A person would be lucky to have a mind that law could open and liberalise. The general sense- seems like common sense to me.
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