I read that a Latin expression is a transverbalization of a greek one. What does this mean exactly?
Source Transverbalization is:
Expressing the meaning of a linguistic element (word, phrase, clause, or sentence) in one language using a linguistic element (word, phrase, clause, or sentence) in another language. THIS IS A ONE-STEP PROCESS. For example, the FRENCH phrase “déjà vu” consists of “déjà,” which means “already,” and “vu,” which means “seen.” Therefore, the transverbalization for “déjà vu” is “already seen.” When a Frenchman says, “déjà vu,” as in “I have déjà vu the movie,” he means “I have already seen the movie.”
[size=3]]Source "trans-verbalisation", or the mental conversion of each word into English as the eyes traverse the Latin page. This dull and needless process was once taught in French and Spanish classes, but in the last seventy years it has been fairly well exterminated, as students were taught to "think in the language". Classes in which no word of English entered, pioneered many years ago by Middlebury College's celebrated language isolation system in its summer schools, has become the norm in teaching the modern languages, while Latin teaching has often plodded on in its old habits, unaware of change.
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