- An elderly man was knocked down by a drunken driver.
- An elderly man was run over by a drunken driver.
- An elderly man was hit by a drunken driver.
- She hit the kid because she was distracted.
- She ran over the kid because she was distracted.
- She knocked down a kid because she was distracted.
Are they all possible? Do they mean the same thing? Can I use them in the same context?
1 and 3 mean the same. 2 means that the vehicle's wheels passed over part of the man's body.- An elderly man was knocked down by a drunken driver.
- An elderly man was run over by a drunken driver.
- An elderly man was hit by a drunken driver.
It's not crystal clear whether she was driving at the time.- She hit the kid because she was distracted.
- She ran over the kid because she was distracted.
- She knocked down a kid because she was distracted.
If she was then my previous remark applies.
Rover
NOT A TEACHER
Teacher Rover has given us an excellent answer.
Just a gentle reminder that if you are writing for Americans, you may wish to
say "drunk driver." (Also, here in the States the crime is called "drunk driving."
I always chuckle when I read British online newspapers that refer to "drink driving.")