Hello,
Could you explain to me the use of 'of' in this sentence?
He would of never done that to a white woman.
Is it possible to say; He would of never have done that to a white woman.
Thanks
NOT A TEACHER
(1) I think that the use of "of" is a mistake committed by both native and non-native
speakers.
(2) "Of course," the correct sentence is:
He would have never done that to a ....
(3) The explanation for this mistake, I hear, is that in conversation, people say:
He would've never done that to a ....
(a) Maybe the 've sounds like "of."
I have been so confused by 'of' in this sentence too.
'He is not deserving of love.'
And here too;
'Hello. Sorry there. Been a bit neglectful. Busy of late.'
So it has nothing to do with formal English, does it?
Thanks
In your first example, the "of" is wrong. People hear "of" when it's spoken "would've" just as Parser says, so they write "would of" instead of "would have." It's a fairly common mistake, but it is a mistake.
In the examples in your second post, those are all correct uses of "of."
The first is a fairly formal construction. "He's not deserving of X" means "He doesn't deserve X."
"I've been busy of late" means "I've been busy lately" or "Recently, I've been busy."
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.