Dear teachers,
Recently, I have read a book which states that "masterly" in the expression of masterly understatements" is a redundant adjective. I would like to know why. Thanks again.
You will need to provide more context if you want a good answer to your question.
I can't see why if that is a general statement. As JohnParis says, there may be something more in the wider context, but on its own it doesn't look particularly convincing. Understatement can be used for different effects, so I can't see why it can't be modified.
Last edited by Tdol; 15-Nov-2011 at 08:51.
Thanks for your replies, teachers. But the author just quoted the example out of context as well.![]()
Maybe it was one of the author's pet hates.