Re: like a man-made ocean

Originally Posted by
suprunp
Is it justifiable that the author thought something along these lines while writing the sentence in question:
[...] the more the context contributes to the communicative force of an utterance, the less need there is for the utterance to be grammatically explicit.
That is highly unlikely, in my opinion. I think it's simply a case of 'derailed grammar'. The writer (or translator) had a couple of thoughts in his mind and ran them together clumsily.
In this particular case context does not readily contribute to the communicative force of the utterance. I had to re-read it a couple of times before I could guess what th ewriter intended to say.
Context is always important; labelling is rarely important.