Hi teachers, I have a question:
1. I haven't played football for two days.
2. I haven't played football in two days.
Are they the same? if not, what is the difference between them?
Thanks
When used with the negative and a sense of the past, I really sense no difference between them. Three days ago, you played football and you have not played since then.
However, "I will play football for two days" and "I will play football in two days" have different meantings.
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.
[QUOTE=pubctx;836838]
1. I haven't played football for two days.
2. I haven't played football in two days.
Are they the same? if not, what is the difference between them?
NOT A TEACHER
(1) As I understand it, No. 1 is more popular in British English; No.2, in American
English.
(2) I learned this a few years ago when I read a sentence something like this
in a British newspaper:
This is the first time for three years that The Times has been prohibited
in [name of country].
I think that most Americans would definitely use "in" in such a sentence.