I would like to know if the verbs to reek and to please are dynamic or stative verbs?
Why don't you give an example sentence or two using each verb and then see how they look to you?
For instance:
James was reeking of alcohol the other day.
Waiters try hard pleasing their chiefs.(not sure if the verb to please can be used in the present continuous).
"James was reeking of alcohol the other day."
Generally, as in the Latin languages, we don't use the imperfect unless there is a reason: habit, contrasting a durative aspect with a punctual aspect, and so on. Here, we would usually just say that he "reeked" of alcohol the other day.
"Waiters try hard pleasing their chefs."
Your instincts were correct, the gerund doesn't fit well here, and is slightly unnatural, unless your true meaning is just a tad illogical: placing the cause and the effect as simultaneous -- they try hard, while pleasing their chefs.
I'd suggest the infinitive here.
So to sum it up to reek and to please are stative verbs?
Many verbs can be used either way, but in this case, I'd have to say reek is stative, but to please, in the transitive aspect, is not (cf. to be pleased, which is.
So can the verb to reek be considered as the verb to stink (which is also a stative verb)and is there a possibility to use it in the Present Continuous?
Last edited by allthewayanime; 28-Dec-2011 at 21:04.