My grammar book says the underlined is a result, but can't it be a purpose as well? I think it depends on context, right? ex)He left the house never to come back again.
Originally Posted by keannu My grammar book says the underlined is a result, but can't it be a purpose as well? I think it depends on context, right? ex)He left the house never to come back again. If you inserted "intending" between "house" and "never", it would mean purpose.
Originally Posted by bhaisahab If you inserted "intending" between "house" and "never", it would mean purpose. Without "intending" and further context to prove his purpose, can it mean purpose like the following? ex) He really decided not to live with his family, so he left the house never to come back again.....
Does "never to" always mean a result not a purpose?
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