Hi,
1. we require of the theories that they make predictons and that they be testable and falisifiable.
=> In this sentence..why is "of" put right after "require"? I think if we say " we require the theories to make predictions and to be testable and falsifiable" , it would be clear. Am I right? I am confused because I can't understand the purpose of "of" in here..
=>Also, why is "be" in there alone? I think "should" have to be put before "be"...In similar way, If I were a writer in that sentence...I would put "should" before "make"..am I wrong?
2. Would you let it go?
Then, we would have no one left.
=>Do two "would" above have the same meaning?
Thank you!
Your proposal is right: 'We require them to be...' is clearer than 'We require of them that they + <subjunctive>' which is both longer and rather archaic. You're right, too, that in current Br Eng there is a tendency to support a subjunctive with a preceding 'should'. In American Eng., though, I believe it's not done.
As to 2, more context is required. 'We would have no one left' is a straightforward conditional. But in 'Would you let it go' The 'would' could either be the past of 'will', another conditional, or a polite request. So it's impossible to decide whether the two 'would's mean the same. (A word takes its meaning from its context, so an extreme view - espoused by some - is that it makes no sense to discuss the equivalence of a single word in different contexts; my French master insisted that the French pain doesn't mean the same as the English 'bread', as it has different cultural resonances.)
b
The "of" sounds rather odd in that particular context but I would not be surprised to hear someone say to someone else "OK. This is what I require of you - that you finish your work on time, to a high degree of accuracy and neatly presented" or something similar. We also say "This is what I require from you ...".