- 1 Post By Allen165
- 4 Post By 5jj
"It does not make sense for a contract between two Swiss companies to be governed by a foreign law."
When I read that sentence the "a" before "foreign law" jumped out at me. I feel that the sentence would sound more natural without it. On the other hand, I think one could argue that "a foreign law" means the law of one country, while "foreign law" could refer to the laws of several countries.
What do you think?
Re: Indefinite Article
Without the article, it means the legal systems of other countries. With the article, it suggests one specific law of one foreign country.
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