I just made a post here on this forum where I wrote, "It occurred to me at once as to how can we use XYZ in the past".
My question is, is there any rule regarding the subject, I and we in this case, which asks us to/not to use one with the other? To put it differently, shouldn't have I said, "It occurred to me at once as to how can I use ....", or my sentence in the quotation marks is correct?
In the thread aachu referred to, he appeared to me to be presenting those words as if they had the meaning of " The question (of how we can use XYZ in the past) occurred to me at once." I was led astray by the original 'can we' word order. If that had been his intention, the words he used were clearly unnatural.
Now that you have pointed out a more probable meaning, the sentence is not nearly as unnatural as it first appeared to me, but I still think "It occurred to me at once as to how we can..." is not natural English. It's fine without 'as to", but not as it is - in my opinion.
You clarified the meaning for me. Have I clarified my objection to the words for you?
Context is always important; labelling is rarely important.
Context is always important; labelling is rarely important.