Does "two-way" refer to "(effect of) stimulus" and "(effect of) time"?
What does "with" mean there?
Context:
To assess the recovery of fear, we used a two-way ANOVA with main effects of stimulus(CSa1,CSb1 and CS2) and time (early and late phase of re-extinction, defined by the mean first four responses versus the last four, respectively), which revealed a stimulus 3 time interaction(F2,51=55.14,P <0.01).
Context is always important; labelling is rarely important.
"The recoery of fear" is correct. Please notice that I've particularly emphasized "Science" in the title. In the study (Preventing the return of fear in humans using reconsolidation update mechanisms), researchers had to test the data of "the recovery of fear," pharmaceutically or nonpharmaceutically.
DISCLAIMER: NOT a Statistician
Without reading the whole article its hard to be sure, and even if I did have access to it, I don't think I can spend the time to read it. Although I did take a couple of courses in Psychology a long time ago, its a distant memory now.
Anyway, judging by the short section you have there, it looks like the two-way ANOVA (as a statistical tool) is being used to assess "recovery of fear" within the various groups of data. It looks like you are right: effects of stimulus vs. time
Time1 Time2 Time 3
S1
S2
S3
Excuse me. It's my language. 'Recovery of fear' makes very little sense in anyone's language, however scientific it may be. I am tired of people using 'scientific' to mean 'illiterate' or 'uneducated'. Scienttists, as a rule, aren't.
Perhaps this ANOVA thing is about the ability to recover the propensity to feel the emotion (fear); in that case it would be clearer to say so.
b
Does the test test certain variables to do with a test subject being able to feel fear again after a period of not feeling fear?
Or does it test variables to do with their recovery after/from a feeling of fear?