Fail to understand this

Does "when part of a widespread and systematic practice" mean "while a widespread and systematic practice
is only part of war"?

Context:

When part of a widespread and systematic practice, rape and sexual slavery are now recognized under the Geneva Convention as crimes against humanity and war crimes.^[4] Rape is also now recognized as an element of the crime of genocide when committed with the intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a targeted group. However, rape remains widespread in conflict zones.

Quote:

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Originally Posted by NewHopeR
[B

When part of a widespread and systematic practice[/B], rape and sexual slavery are now recognized under the Geneva Convention as crimes against humanity and war crimes

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NOT A TEACHER


Question: When are rape and sexual slavery recognized as war crimes?

Answer: When they are part of a widespread and systematic practice by government X.

I guess, therefore, if rape and sexual slavery are not a widespread and systematic practice by

government X, then that government cannot be charged with having committed war crimes.

For example, some rebellious and disobedient forces may commit isolated instances of rape and

slavery, but government X does not encourage or condone it. It may simply be too weak to

stop it.

Well, 163 views, 0 replies. Let's see why it is so hard.

TheParser gave you a good answer. When it is a systematic practice, then it is considered a war crime or a crime against humanity. I believe that a "crime against humanity" need not take place during a declared war.

What a coincidence that I just missed the reply when I said "0 replies."

Thank you both.

I am closing this thread. Please take heed of what I said in the other thread where you posted something like this.