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Thread: Does "past his sell" mean "failed to sell himself (to the people of UK)?"

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    NewHopeR is offline Senior Member
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    Default Does "past his sell" mean "failed to sell himself (to the people of UK)?"

    Does "past his sell" mean "failed to sell himself (to the people of UK/go get UK people's recognition)?"


    Context:

    Comments on Gordon Brown

    During Osborne's response to the Chancellor of the Exchequer Gordon Brown's Pre-Budget Report on 5 December 2005, Osborne accused Brown of being "a Chancellor past his sell by date, a Chancellor holding Britain back". In an interview the same week, he also referred to Brown as 'brutal' and 'unpleasant'.[19] In October 2006 Osborne was rebuked by the Speaker of the House of Commons when he attacked the Chancellor at Oral Questions to the Chancellor by citing a comment attributed to the Secretary of State for Work and Pensions John Hutton, describing the Chancellor as likely to make an 'effing awful' Prime Minister.[20] It was widely suggested that Osborne was leading an assault on Brown which would allow the Conservatives to discredit him without damaging David Cameron's public image.[20][21][22] Osborne faced criticism from some quarters for appearing to suggest that Brown was "faintly autistic". After talking about his ability to recall odd facts in an interview, a host suggested that Osborne may have been "faintly autistic"; Osborne responded by saying that "We're not getting onto Gordon Brown yet".[23]

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    SoothingDave is offline VIP Member
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    Default Re: Does "past his sell" mean "failed to sell himself (to the people of UK)?"

    He is past his "sell-by date," meaning that, like an old cup of yogurt, he has expired.
    5jj, NewHopeR, charliedeut and 1 others like this.

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    BobK is offline Harmless drudge
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    Default Re: Does "past his sell" mean "failed to sell himself (to the people of UK)?"

    (Useful things, hyphens)

    b

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