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#1
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| What's the function of the bold part? I've a book thanks Last edited by mohammad; 17-Jan-2006 at 09:45. |
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#2
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| Do you mean grammatically? If so, then 'have' is a transitive verb when denoting possession, so it'll be the object. |
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#3
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| Quote:
If “Book” is object so we can easily passivize the sentence, but how? It’s impossible! What about this definition ; Predicator complement<pc>:Is a complement that unlike (direct object or indirect object)can’t fill the grammatical subject(subject of passive sentence)position of a passive sentence,therefor in order to test an element to see whether it is “pc”or not we try to passivize the sentence if the result of this passivization is a grammatical sentence: the element is the ‘DO’ or ’IO’ of active sentence. but if the result is an ungrammatical passive sentence the element is “PC” of the active sentence. E.g: They have (two children) → Two children are had by them(×) All the best |
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#4
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| Hi I do agree with you,1364 actually, we call these kinds of verbs "non transitive" or recently "middle verbs" thanks Last edited by mohammad; 18-Jan-2006 at 20:14. |
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#5
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| What about this definition: have (POSSESS) (had, had) Show phonetics verb [T not continuous] Cambridge Dictionary PS, Who says that passivisation is the only test? There are many sentences in both forms that don't readily convert. Last edited by Tdol; 19-Jan-2006 at 07:27. |
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#6
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| Quote:
here is a classification of lexical verbs according to the"ENGLISH SYNTACTIC STRUCTURE by:"FLOR AARTS & JAN AARTS": lexical verb: (1)complement verbs (2)intransitive verbs (1)complement verbs: a.transitive b.non-transitive A.the four classes of transitive verbs: 1.monotransitive verbs(DO only): the farmer kicked the horse. 2.ditransitive verbs(IO+DO): he gave her a book. 3.complex transitive verbs(DO+OC) they find him abore. *4.transitive "PC" verbs(DO+PC): that play reminds me of shakespeare. B.non-transitive verbs: 1.copulas(SA): mary fell ill. *2.non-transitive "PC" verbs: this book belongs to Jane. so what do you think about the verb "have" is it "PC" verbs or... Warmest regards Last edited by 1364; 19-Jan-2006 at 16:54. |
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#7
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| Firstly, the grammaticality test - non-occurence is not the same as ungrammaticality and there are other tests. Let's try adding some more to it: They have a house. Passivisation- ![]() They own a house. Passivisation- ![]() So now, we are to regard these sentences as different because only in the second is there a direct object because the passive form is non-occurent with 'have' when denoting possession? If we apply other tests to see whether it's an object or not- asking questions about whether it affected by the verb, we get identical answers. So here, I think it's swings and roundabouts. Plenty of authorities don't go down the road you are on, and just regard this as a transitive verb- horses for courses. Last edited by Tdol; 20-Jan-2006 at 05:40. |
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#8
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| Hi; I’m really mixed up! I search a lot about this matter and surprisingly each time I get a new idea! And also each of them is reasonable, consequently; I think this case is full of vagueness! And I should go further to gain more information .anyway thanks a million for your reply and care. Best wishes |
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#9
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| There are many areas where there is dispute, so often answers are a matter of opinion and preference. Another example is the word 'up' in the sentence 'They have made up.' Some will say it's a particle, while others will say it's an adverb, so there are conflicting views. On the question of 'have' in the original, I don't see that making a distinction between it and 'owed' is a great improvement, but others do make a distinction. We can't even agree how many tenses there are and what they should be called- I think it's mostly because we like a good argument. Ultimately, when you've read around, go with the view that satisfies you most. Last edited by Tdol; 20-Jan-2006 at 13:43. |
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