paying 35 to 1
In this "the winner was 12, paying 35 to 1" structure, doesn't "paying" have to be "being paid"? As the winner is paid, not because he pays something.
ex)In Las Vegas, a honeymooning couple was spending their last night in their hotel before returning home. The wife was asleep, and the husband, wide awake, noticed a $5 chip that they had saved as a souvenir. Suddenly, the number 12 was flashing in the groom’s mind. He rushed to the roulette tables, where he placed the $5 chip on the 12; sure enough, the winner was 12, paying 35 to 1. He kept on winning until he had won $262 million. But after playing for a couple of more hours, he had lost everything he had earned. Broke and disappointed, he walked back to his room. “Where were you?” asked his bride. “Playing roulette,” he responded. “How did you do?” she asked. “Not bad. I lost five dollars.” This story shows what is referred to as playing with casino money. The idea is that people do not feel that something really belongs to them unless it comes out of their own pocket
Re: paying 35 to 1
The winning number was 12. The bet pays 35 to 1.
In this formation, it is the winning number "12" that is "paying" the bettor. It is quite normal to express bets/odds like this.
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