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Well, had is right and have is wrong in all normal utterances. I suppose that it is because would rather expresses hypothetical preference, thereby utilizing the second conditional.
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Well thanks,
So you are saying that (have) it is totally wrong to be used here.Am I right?
I gave the answer to my friend,and he told me:are you sure (would rather)in conditional sentences is like (would) and it doesn`t refer to future as well as present? In that case (have) would be right too,and I was confused again.
I'm a new comer in the forum and I want to share my ideas here.So, I can give my humble opinion in the question. It must be type I, because would rather present situation not the past. Thus, the anwser is type 1
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Conditional II does not depend upon the time frame, but upon likelihood--
Conditional I: If I see you, I will beat you. (present or future possible)
Conditional II: If I saw you, I would beat you. (present hypothetical)
Conditional III: If I had seen you, I would have beaten you. (past hypothetical)
But back to the original question. Would rather is indeed listed as a 'hypothetical verb' by Quirk. et al, along with wish. These verbs are among those which still utilize a past form (indicative) or the subjunctive:
I wish I were dead. (Not I wish I am dead.)
What would you wish for if you had money? (Not if you have money)
I would rather he sit somewhere else.
Compare these with: What will you do if you have money?
Or perhaps it's just a case of a false paradigm now ingrained in the language:
What would you do if you had money?
What would you eat if you had money?
What would you rather (do) if you had money?