English Language Discussion Forums

chiewnet · #1 19-Jun-2006, 08:05

Hello

I am confused about the following subject verb agreement;

"Neither John nor his friend is" ... (because it means no one is, right?)

But I was told that "neither John nor his friends are..." (but why is it not singular since it also means no one)

Can someone please enlighten. Thanks in advance.

#2 19-Jun-2006, 12:35

Neither John nor his friend is....-this sentence is correct because the closest noun to the verb is "[his] friend [singular]"

Neither John nor his friends are.......-this sentence is correct, because the closest noun[subject] to the verb is in the plural form [friends]

Casiopea · #3 19-Jun-2006, 14:53

Hello, Sheena.

Casiopea · #4 19-Jun-2006, 15:02

Welcome, chiewnet.

In addition,

When singular subjects are connected with neither...nor, the verb is usually and more acceptably singular,

"Neither cat nor dog is allowed."

[This] is because neither...nor is a negative counterpart to either...or, which is singular.

But neither ... nor is also a negative counterpart to both...and, which is plural,

"Neither cat nor dog are allowed."
<Meaning, Both cat and dog are not allowed>

But if both subjects are plural, the verb is plural:

"Neither cats nor dogs are allowed."

If there is a singular and a plural subject, it is most acceptable to put the plural subject second and have the verb agree with the nearest (plural) subject,

"Neither the cat nor the dogs are allowed."

Even if the plural subject is placed first, it is common to use a plural verb,

"Neither the cats nor the dog are allowed."