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#1
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| My name is Valdeck. I am originally from Brazil, but I have been living in the U.S. for a long time, and it is now my home. I've always loved learning languages. The English language has always fascinated me since I was in my early teens. Learning new words, phrasal verbs, slangs and/or expressions is like tapping into a whole new universe of possibilities to express my experiences and the reality around me. Recently, a friend of mine used the verb "to speak" in a way that was unfamiliar to me. I looked it up in several sources, but to no avail. His sentence was: "He's already spoken for". When I asked him what he meant, he said "He's already taken". We were talking about a guy who was in a committed relationship, and therefore was not available for dating. Can you explain to me if this is correct? Why can't I find this usage in a dictionary? Thank you for your help. Valdeck |
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#2
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| Yes, his usage is correct. I've always presumed this idiom evolved from the practice of verbally claiming something as your own. For example, a dinner guest excuses himself from the table momentarily. Before leaving, he quietly asks the hostess to please save him a piece of pie for dessert. While he's away, the other guests start helping themselves to dessert. One person reaches for the last slice of pie, and the hostess politely stops him, telling him, "I'm sorry, but that piece is already spoken for." |
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#3
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