So it comes out that what in British English looks more like formal (without "should") in American English looks less formal, and the "should" form probably sounds more formal (because it's unusual), is that correct?
and when I finally understood (after few hours of studying and reading what you wrote me) what means "mandative subjunctive" - another question arose: does "mandative subjunctive" is expressed like should+infinitive in AMERICAN English as well? ... thus, would they understand if they hear such a talk?:
1. 'Shall I leave now?' ... 'No, I should wait a bit longer.'
(=I would wait if I were you)
and would it be correct in either British or American english if I change it to:
1a. 'shall I leave now?' ... 'No, I would wait a bit longer.' [without "if I were you"]
(without considering 'shall'... I know it's unusual in America)
and now: who should understand if I say:
2. It's strange that he should be late. (that is "indicative" clause (sentence).. if I'm correct

)
americans or englishmen? maybe it's correct in both British and American English?
And I didn't get this one:
Quote:
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Thus 4a conveys not only the speaker's surprise that she said such a thing, but also his surprise that she said such a thing.
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I don't understand, what's the difference between "the speaker's surprise that she said such a thing" and "his surprise that she said such a thing"??

... it looks the same...