i have seen many sentences from books or dictionaries,
sometime, when they use "past perfect" sentence, they didnt indicate " had been" was happened before soemthings else.
for ex:explorers going where no man had trod before.
so, "had trod" before "when"
(according to grammar rule: when you use past perfect it's taking about something happened before somthing else in the past , right? but the sentence
above dosn't give any sense of "past of past"this sentence seem like simple past.)
explorers going where no man had trod (so this is it!) They went to places where until then, nobody had gone before (them,the explorers)
but, they just plan to go there, but have not gone yet, why use "had been"
sorry,I had the impression you were talking about a quote from the past,like a sentence from a book of history or the like...If these explorers are just planning to go, but havenīt actually gone, then it should be explorers going where no man has trod before.
Hello,
There is not enough context. It might well have been some where had been after going was perfectly correct.
Bye
i found this sentence in an electric dictionary, it's only given that much of clue,
so, i am confusing it. but it said: "no man had trod"
The text must be referring to people in the past who went somewhere where no-one had been before. For example, when a man walked on the moon (which happened for the first time many years ago), he was walking where "no-ne had trod before". So the past perfect tense is correct for a past event which happened before another past event.Originally Posted by endeavor6636