Quote:
Originally Posted by Akabane Hi Reemy-san,
Thank you for your explanation.
I understand the both usages, "The bank grants me a $500 loan." and "The bank grants a $500 loan to me.".
The expressions I encountered were like "ABC company grants XYZ company to use ABC's software." and "ABC company grants to XYZ company to use ABC's software.". And I doubt that the latter sentence is something wrong or different from "The bank grants a $500 loan to me." format because there is no object between "grants" and "to XYZ".
So, my question again is that is "grant to someone", i.e. without object between "grant" and "to someone" OK?
Regards,
Akabane |
Your query is essentially whether the direct object of the verb 'to grant' needs to directly follow the verb. It does not - 'grant' requires a direct object ('x') and a dative object (to 'y'), but they may be in either order. For example:
1) "I grant (to) you the right..."
2) "I grant the right... to you."
In both cases, 'you' is the dative object y, and 'the right' is the direct object x. However, in both of your original examples 'B company' is the dative object - you simply illustrated that the dative preposition 'to' is optional there (directly after the verb - it is not optional later in the sentence).
Reemy's example was different, in that he/she transposed the two objects. To reiterate, they are all correct, both grammatically and in common usage.