#1  
Old 28-Sep-2006, 16:26
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Default "Storms are good to happen"

Storms are good to happen.

Does that make sense? I know you can write "it is good for storms to happen", but I want to know if the first makes sense or not - and if not, why?
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Old 28-Sep-2006, 17:56
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Talking Re: "Storms are good to happen"

yes. the first sentence seems ok. what problem do you think it has?
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Old 28-Sep-2006, 18:08
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Default Re: "Storms are good to happen"

Quote:
Originally Posted by Passionwagon View Post
Storms are good to happen.

Does that make sense? I know you can write "it is good for storms to happen", but I want to know if the first makes sense or not - and if not, why?

Your sentence would probably be understood, but it is not idiomatic English. If you parse the sentence, you have:

storms: noun, subject
are: linking verb
good: predicate adjective
to happen: infinitive (but it just hangs there)
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Old 29-Sep-2006, 09:44
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Default Re: "Storms are good to happen"

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Originally Posted by MikeNewYork View Post
Your sentence would probably be understood, but it is not idiomatic English.
.
.
.
Matilda seemed so sure that I thought it was an AmE meaning: *'Storms are likely to happen' (as in 'it is a good bet [or a reasonable guess] that storms will happen'). It's certainly meaningless in BE, though a sympathetic native speaker might interpret it in the meaning cited above ("it is good for storms to happen sometimes"),

b

ps - My first example was a [I]supposed[/B] meaning. I think it's wrong.

Last edited by BobK; 29-Sep-2006 at 10:54. Reason: Added ps
  #5  
Old 30-Sep-2006, 19:13
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Default Re: "Storms are good to happen"

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Originally Posted by BobK View Post
Matilda seemed so sure that I thought it was an AmE meaning: *'Storms are likely to happen' (as in 'it is a good bet [or a reasonable guess] that storms will happen'). It's certainly meaningless in BE, though a sympathetic native speaker might interpret it in the meaning cited above ("it is good for storms to happen sometimes"),

b
That's the meaning I would have gotten from it.
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