"No man living could do it."
I don't understand why "man" is modified from the
back by "living"(a present participle) , though there is no other modifiers.
Is this a special case?
Could anyone tell me why?
Really, it's literary or poetic language.
You often find unusual or old-fashioned constructions in literature and poetry. This isn't something that you should try to do yourself unless you are a very, very good writer.
This usage can be defended, though. It's in parallel with constructions like, "No man standing in an empty room..." or "No man reading the Guardian...". In normal English usage, though, if the -ing form has no objects, we usually treat it like a normal adjective and put it in front of the verb it modifies.
In short: Don't do it yourself, but understand that it isn't automatically wrong.
Dear All,
Thank you very much!
why dont u lıke than men ??? :P he he