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  #1  
Old 27-Jan-2004, 16:11
Helped Wanted
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Default PLEASE ADVISE, teachers! URGENT :'(

Leonardo da Vinci could play the lute well without learning.

Is the above sentence correct in expressing that Leonardo had never learnt how to play the lute but he could play it so well the first time he tried on it. IF not, could any teachers out there help correct it?

PLEASE ADVISE, teachers! URGENT :'(
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  #2  
Old 27-Jan-2004, 16:32
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Leonardo mastered the lute without lessons
L was able to play the lute from the start without being taught?
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Old 27-Jan-2004, 16:48
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Many thanks, teacher Tdol! Is it correct to write it like this as in:

L could play the lute without having learnt how to play it before.

Does it make sense too? Sorry for asking help again! Please advise! :"(
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Old 27-Jan-2004, 21:16
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Helped Wanted
Many thanks, teacher Tdol! Is it correct to write it like this as in:

L could play the lute without having learnt how to play it before.

Does it make sense too? Sorry for asking help again! Please advise! :"(
Not exactly. Try:
  • Leonardo could play the lute even though nobody ever taught him how. He was self-taught.

What do you think?

:)
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  #5  
Old 28-Jan-2004, 05:47
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Thanks for taking the time to reply again, teacher Ronbee! ^o^
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  #6  
Old 28-Jan-2004, 08:25
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:D
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