View Poll Results: Which form of the verb ''to be" do we have to use?

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5. This poll is closed
  • are

    1 20.00%
  • is

    4 80.00%
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    0 0%
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  1. #11
    riverkid is offline Banned
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    Default Re: none of the pipes are/is damaged

    Quote Originally Posted by Avalon View Post
    One of the textbooks I currently teach states that though none should be followed by a verb in the singular form, many native speakers used the plural form. So I tell this to students and they´re more than happy to know that whatever form they put will be correct!
    Good plan Avalon, but be careful to tell them that this does not hold when 'none' refers to a noncount noun, such as water.

    None of the water has leaked out of the pool.

  2. #12
    Avalon is offline Member
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    Default Re: none of the pipes are/is damaged

    Quote Originally Posted by riverkid View Post
    Good plan Avalon, but be careful to tell them that this does not hold when 'none' refers to a noncount noun, such as water.
    None of the water has leaked out of the pool.
    Oh yes, you´re right there...I don´t remember mentioning this, but I guess( not good enough to guess, I know) that they´d notice that it´d be wrong to say none of the water have leaked, cause it´s uncountable in our native language too, and chances are that they´d translate from our native language correctly...but thanks for the reminder, nonetheless!

  3. #13
    Mad-ox's Avatar
    Mad-ox is offline Key Member
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    Default Re: none of the pipes are/is damaged

    Thanks for your answers!

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