1. Is ok
2. May be better to say...I have been to America
Hello my frinds
I need someone explain to me what is different between this two sentences?
1- I was in America.
2- I have been in America.
Good bay![]()
1. Is ok
2. May be better to say...I have been to America
thank you very much
but when can I use the both sentences?
I was in America last year.
In answer to a question - Where have you been? 'I have been in America' might work but still better to say 'I have been to America'
thank you very much
OK MR.curmudgeon
can you or anyone explain what is the different between this two sentences?
1-I wrote a letter to my brother.
2-I had written a letter to my brother.
the problem if I translate this two sentences to my language. it give me the same meaning.
thank you very much
So hard
i can't understand
I my opinion ,2 should say I have written a letter to my brother. And we can say it was the fact I had already written a letter to my brother. But can not use already in 1.
Am I right? teachers
If you say 'I had written a letter to my brother', then this would be before another action or time in the past. Alone, there is no need for the past perfect:
I had just written a letter to my brother when he rang me.
The first sentence is past simple, thats to say ,you can use it with these words " yesterday,last year/month/week/ Sunday/ two months ago and so on
It sometimes come after another tense also as the past perfect which it refers" to long time "and both actions happened and finished "in the past "and we are talking about these past experiences . finally when we translate them into our mother tongue language we need to be more careful and quite alert when we narate past events. TO add to this, the past perfect tense can be used with "after" and "before".
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SALEEMABU