get amused

[chum]

can we say, "I easily get amused?" or "I'm easily amused" are both correct?can somebody tell me the difference?
thanks!

[rancher247]

From googling both possibilities and from personal experience, I would say that "I'm easily amused" is much more popular. Nevertheless, I'm quite sure you could use "I easily get amused," "I get easily amused," or "I'm easily amused," and most people would understand you. I'm not sure what grammar rules apply to these three phrases or what the difference is.
I hope this helps!!

[Volcano1985]

I think I'm easily got amused is passive tense

[rancher247]

I don't think so, but that may be possible. In any case, you shouldn't use "I easily get amused" in a formal paper. But in common english when friends speak to each other, this type of passive tense, if it is passive tense, is acceptable. Few people, apart from the really strict grammar people, will call you out on it if you happen to use the passive tense. Basically, no worries.

[chum]

so if we can say, I easily get amused, we can also say I easily get bored?

[rancher247]

Well if you trust google, yes. If you type in "I easily get bored," (without quotes) there are 1,350,000 results. People use it, so we can say it. Again, it's probably not the best phrase in the world to use, but people definitely use it, so it's ok for informal language settings.

[chum]

I'm actually describing myself,and i don't know which one to use..."i get easily amused and I get easily bored" or "i am easily amused and easily bored"

[Volcano1985]

Originally Posted by chum

I'm actually describing myself,and i don't know which one to use..."i get easily amused and I get easily bored" or "i am easily amused and easily bored"

you can use "I get amused easily" and " I get bored easily" to describe yourself

[rancher247]

"I am both easily amused and easily bored" is both more correct and sounds better because "getting" implies "to get" is a transitive verb, and amused is an adjective. You want a intransitive verb, which would be the "am". The verb "to be" is intransitive. The predicate word is amused/bored, and you don't have any direct object so you need to use "I am both easily amused and easily bored" to avoid redundancy. My mom just explained this to me. :)
Hope this helps.

[ian2]

Originally Posted by rancher247

"I am both easily amused and easily bored" is both more correct and sounds better because "getting" implies "to get" is a transitive verb, and amused is an adjective. You want a intransitive verb, which would be the "am". The verb "to be" is intransitive. The predicate word is amused/bored, and you don't have any direct object so you need to use "I am both easily amused and easily bored" to avoid redundancy. My mom just explained this to me. :)
Hope this helps.

It’s complicated from a grammatical perspective. Some grammarians call BE and GET “passive auxiliary”, which means you can use them in a passive voice. But with BE, you can use an expressed animated agent, with GET, you can’t, for example.

You can say: “The boy got hurt on his way home from work”.
But you can’t say: “The boy got given a book by his father.

GET is also informal. So don’t use it in a formal context.

Besides, GET is often called “resulting copula”, which means it always indicates a result, whereas BE only indicates state. So when I say “I got drunk”, the emphasis is on the result of my drinking, whereas “I am drunk” only suggests that I am in the state of being drunk. Another resulting copula is BECOME. In fact, if we are aware of the differences of the three words, we know how to use them in different contexts:

I am tired (state)
I get tired (result)
I become tired (result, but emphasizing the process of the result)

Hope this helps.